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Posted

The couriers afaIaa do little to nothing to identify non delivered items, they don't have the staff free to do it, like opening boxes with missing labels to see if there is anything inside to identify the item (you know like P2G used to say print 2 labels and put one inside in case) they just send them to auction after a period of being 'on the naughty step' and the depots will have a KPI to clear the 'naughty step' and get back to clear decks and no outstanding deliveries. The Auctioneers might tip off interested parties, they all probably have someone who deals in musical instruments on their quick dial/email list.

A friend of friend (who buys stuff at auction and churns it, specialising in furniture and quality homeware) picked up a fake '72 strat for £60 at the auction recently, we knew it was a fake, but it's a really nice bitsa made from quality parts, would have been £4-500 worth of parts, a little set up and some strap buttons and my friend has a fine playing guitar he's happy to take busking which even if lost will probably have earned him more after a month than it cost .

  • Like 1
Posted (edited)

Who has the bass actually been stolen from?

 

The only actual facts are that it didn't reach the buyer but was sent to Auction (possibly in error) by PF.

 

In which case, the auction house would have contacted PF, said that someone had been in touch and pointed out the error. PF would then have to have the bass back to correct the error. Remember several people have now contacted the auction house to alert them. 

 

The auction house would have no way of verifying the actual owner of the bass or whether it was actually stolen. 

 

If the police had arrived at the Auction house then the same process would be followed. 

 

The theft is only alleged, and the identity of the person guilty of the alleged theft is unknown.

 

The sender of the bass remains the property of the owner until the bass arrives with the buyer, and is supposed to be in the care of PF. Let them sort it out. 

Edited by TimR
Posted

Do we know for sure that no insurance was paid out to the seller or buyer, in relation to the original loss?

 

If there has been, then I'd summise that the bass will be the possession of PF.

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