Hellzero Posted yesterday at 08:23 Posted yesterday at 08:23 36 minutes ago, police squad said: again, why? Why is the genitive Status (4th) and not Stati (2nd) Because the word status belongs to the 4th declension, but also because oral language came first so grammar is linked to it, and the rules derive from the oral language to integrate the written language to "lock" it. In fact, the genitive form is statūs, which is different in pronunciation of status, so again a strong link to the oral language. I didn't create the Latin grammar, so it's the only explanation you'll get (from me), furthermore like in any language, there are exceptions... Quote
tauzero Posted yesterday at 11:32 Posted yesterday at 11:32 4 hours ago, police squad said: I quite enjoyed latin at shool, our teacher taught us a lot of proper English grammar Although there are one or two English grammar "rules" which are ridiculous because they're relevant only in Latin - to never split an infinitive (Latin infinitives are one word so cannot be split) and to never use a preposition to end a sentence with. 1 Quote
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