Hi everyone!
I owned lots of basses and most of them have had a dead spot - from the cheap to the
expensive butique Basses.
I know - i went through lots of opinions - from internet to luthiers in reality. Most
of the answers were something like : "the wood is an organic material and it's normal..."
What i've discovered is that almost everyone bass i've ever owned had a "dead spot"
on the 7th fret G string. IF this is a dead spot anyway...
It just rings out faster, leading to harmonic (you can feel the neck vibrating more as
compared on the other notes). Somewhere i read that a dead spot SHOULD HAVE less
attack compared to other notes, and THE WOLF is the exact opposite.
However - this faster outringing note theoretically doesn't match any of those two.
There were some Basses that i owned, without a dead spots. But they were 3 out of cca 20.
And no, they weren't Fodera-s or similar! A normal Fender Jazz Bass Standard, Fender Stu Hamm Urge 2
and a Sadowsky RV5 Metro.
I played a 5 string 24 fret Monarch who had, again, a "dead" spot on 7th fret, G string - pretty strong one.
I noticed (it may be my assumption) that 24 fret Basses have a bigger "chance" of having a dead
spot as the others... Still observing tho (Ok, Stu Hamm urge 2 had 24 frets, but it was really a lucky one)
It is SO COMMON found thing on all the basses - also on the most expensive ones (custom foderas, ken smiths...)
that i really don't know anymore...Do i care too much? Sometimes i think i will go nuts because of that...
And after all that written - ARE this dead spots at all, or are those notes really LACKING of attack?
Before going nuts - i try to calm me down with a thinking of all the bass stars on the planet...
I assume that also they don't have the "perfect" outringing instruments in the universe, or...?????
Can somebody discuss/give his opinion on this topic?
Thank you and Cheers